He was obviously trying to compare the performance differences of the two balls. Which was very informative nonetheless.
But it would've (imo) been more interesting and provided more compelling evidence to make some sort of valid argument to see him use clubs 20 years back with both balls, to make a more valid comparison, versus the other way around.
Had he used golf clubs back from that era, not sure there would've been a huge disparity in performance, not that there was one to begin with despite using more modern equipment.
Maybe it's not just "all about the ball" as the most convenient and popular argument today suggests.
Very interesting.